First person dual

[Hu]

ΧαἰÏ￾ετε πἀντες,
Is there a first person dual form for Homeric verbs? Pharr has only the second and third person forms listed, so I'm assuming the first person dual is either very rare and not in Homer, or isn't found in any of the Ancient Greek we have. I'm somewhat uncomfortable with possibly not knowing a verb form, though, so I'd like to know if it exists.

[modus.irrealis]

Hi,

I happened to take Monro's Homeric Grammar out of the library a few days ago and about this topic it has:

1 Dual. -μεθον occurs only once, in πεÏ￾ιδώμεθον, Il. 23. 485. Elmsley (on Ar. Ach. 733) maintained that this form was a fiction of the grammarians. It is defended by G. Curtius (Verb. I. 97 f.), and there seems no valid reason for rejecting it.

But other than there, I've never seen a 1st person dual ending anywhere.

[IreneY]

Ditto. I have never encountered 1st person dual ending and I don't remember seeing it in any of my grammar books (scanned through them and there doesn't seem to be in any of them).

[Hu]

Hi,

I happened to take Monro's Homeric Grammar out of the library a few days ago and about this topic it has:

1 Dual. -μεθον occurs only once, in πεÏ￾ιδώμεθον, Il. 23. 485. Elmsley (on Ar. Ach. 733) maintained that this form was a fiction of the grammarians. It is defended by G. Curtius (Verb. I. 97 f.), and there seems no valid reason for rejecting it.

But other than there, I've never seen a 1st person dual ending anywhere.

Interesting that it only occurs once - my Iliad Loeb has "-ὠμεθα" in that line. I can certainly see how some scribes might think it's an error for the 1st person plural.

Thanks for the responses. Pharr lists a lot of variant and rare forms, but never any first person dual, which left me wondering.