Brendan wrote:1. For almost every verb, starting around lesson X, Pharr gives the first three parts of the verb, except occasionally when he doesn't. For instance, á½€Î»á½³ÎºÏ‰ doesn't get any other parts listed, even in the vocabulary section at the back. I guess this means it's completely regular,
Beware! For this verb, it doesn't mean that at all. Pharr is good for learning, but for this sort of information you need to check the LSJ (via Perseus) or Cunliffe's Homeric dictionary. In this particular case á½€Î»á½³ÎºÏ‰
only exists in the present and imperfect. For other forms the verb á½„Î»Î»Ï…Î¼Î¹
is used instead.
but then why does a verb like Î»á½»Ï‰ (which I think is regular) get the full treatment?
That does get used in all aspects and tenses.
but what does a question mark mean? (For example, the paradigm for Ï€á½¹Î»Î¹Ï‚ in section 704, in plural accusative form.) That it didn't exist?
It means that it might have existed, but when Pharr wrote the book the matter wasn't settled. I'm not sure if it is yet. On your first pass through, you probably don't need to spend time on these. If you continue on to read more Homer, you'll want to go back and take a closer look. Some editions of Homer may sometimes choose obscurer forms.