
Moderator: thesaurus
<br /><br />That's what I'm always wondering about when learning principal parts of verbs, where there is no supine. How do they know there isn't any? Just beacuse it doesn't occur in the texts we have, or because old grammarians say so? Or do ancient authors invent all kinds of different structures to make up for the lack of a certain supine? <br /><br />Besides, if you check several dictionaries, there's always one that doesn't agree with the others about existing supines[quote author=klewlis <br />why? can't i use it anyway even if they didn't? (or maybe they did and we just don't have record of it<br />

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