Luke 3:17 reads; οὗτὸ πτύον ?ν τῇ χει?ὶ α?τοῦ διακαθᾶ?αι τὴν ἅλωνα α?τοῦ καὶ συναγαγεῖν το\ν σῖτον εἰς τὴν ἀποθήκην α?τοῦ, τὸ δὲ ἄχυ?ον κατακαύσει πυ?ὶ ἀσβέστῳ.
I am befuddled. What is the purpose of the relative pronoun οὖ?
ou(= in Luke 3:17
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well, I don't have a Bible around (not at home and I can't seem to access the only site with the texts I know) so I am don't know what is before it and whether it is at the beginning of a new sentence or not , so I am just guessing here but it seems that Kopio's suggestion makes sence.
The relative after all is often used instead of ostis etc
The relative after all is often used instead of ostis etc
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Yes I did....I follow B-Greek quite a bit. From time to time I even ask questions....and even more rarely....I'll chime in when a question is asked and I feel I have something to add (although this has been rarely indeed!) FWIW, you give a perfectly good example, and Albert is simply refusing to concede the point!Bert wrote:You found my post.
Carl Conrad is my hero. I wanna be just like him when I grow up.....really....I mnean it!