Bert wrote:Luke 3:17 reads; Î¿á½—Ï„á½¸ Ï€Ï„á½»Î¿Î½ á¼Î½ Ï„á¿‡ Ï‡ÎµÎ¹Ïá½¶ Î±á½Ï„Î¿á¿¦ Î´Î¹Î±ÎºÎ±Î¸á¾¶ÏÎ±Î¹ Ï„á½´Î½ á¼…Î»Ï‰Î½Î± Î±á½Ï„Î¿á¿¦ ÎºÎ±á½¶ ÏƒÏ…Î½Î±Î³Î±Î³Îµá¿–Î½ Ï„Î¿\Î½ Ïƒá¿–Ï„Î¿Î½ Îµá¼°Ï‚ Ï„á½´Î½ á¼€Ï€Î¿Î¸á½µÎºÎ·Î½ Î±á½Ï„Î¿á¿¦, Ï„á½¸ Î´á½² á¼„Ï‡Ï…ÏÎ¿Î½ ÎºÎ±Ï„Î±ÎºÎ±á½»ÏƒÎµÎ¹ Ï€Ï…Ïá½¶ á¼€ÏƒÎ²á½³ÏƒÏ„á¿³.
I am befuddled. What is the purpose of the relative pronoun Î¿á½–?
I looked through several different grammars, and none of them had this listed...so....I'll give you my best guess....
I would say that it is probably being used sort of like an article in further specifying the subject of the sentence. If the sentence read Ï„Î¿Ï… Ï„á½¸ Ï€Ï„á½»Î¿Î½ á¼Î½ Ï„á¿‡ Ï‡ÎµÎ¹Ïá½¶ Î±á½Ï„Î¿á¿¦
. I'm guessing that you wouldn't be asking the same question. Note the agreement of the relative with the following pronoun. I think what is happening is that Luke is using the relative to define the substantive furthermore. It is not simply "the winnowing fork in his hand", it is "the winnowing fork, the one which is in his hand"
Does that make sense at all?? BTW, I did a quick search and this kind of construction occurs all over the NT. I do remember the first time I read through the Gospels seeing this sort of thing and wondering the same thing that you stated. I believe that is what is going on with it. It does seem weird at times just to see a relative just hanging around where you don't expect to see it!