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Matthew 28:17 oi(

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Matthew 28:17 oi(

Postby Bert » Sun Mar 05, 2006 4:05 am

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Postby Chris Weimer » Sun Mar 05, 2006 6:36 am

It's possible. With oi being a relative pronoun as such, it has the flexibility to stretch. I can't recall this in any other part of Matthew, so personally I'd do "they" instead of "some." "Some" is too much interpretation.
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Postby Kopio » Sun Mar 05, 2006 7:07 am

Blass, Debrunner, and Funk refer to this verse in section 250 of their grammar. They say hOI DE means "but others" and states that unlike the other examples it list that start with MEN and then are followed by DE that:
BDF wrote:in these two places (the other being Matthew 26:67) no differentiation is indicated at the beginning of the sequence, but with the appearance of hOI DE it becomes evident that what was siad first did not apply to all"

I know that quite often in Classical DE is simply used to denote a new sentence or idea. It could be that Matthew is Atticizing here. Just a guess.

Small sidenote....I was just saying how great I thought BDF was....and here they are the only Koine Grammar that deals with this specific verse. It could be that since they are writing a Koine Grammar coming from a Classical standpoint, that this sort of thing stuck out a bit more to them than some of the other modern grammars. Bert...I'm telling ya....if you don't own BDF you should!
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Postby Skylax » Sun Mar 05, 2006 9:29 am

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Postby ThomasGR » Sun Mar 05, 2006 10:21 am

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Postby Bert » Sun Mar 05, 2006 1:33 pm

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Postby Chris Weimer » Sun Mar 05, 2006 4:20 pm

I suppose you are right, and Mt. 26.67 definitely is another example of such. There's no way you can read the expected reading into that line.
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Postby IreneY » Mon Mar 06, 2006 8:12 pm

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Postby Kopio » Mon Mar 06, 2006 8:47 pm

For the record.....what is your bible IreneY? You said that it follows the OUP version....I can't find any support for the TINES to be in there at all.
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Postby IreneY » Mon Mar 06, 2006 9:09 pm

I meant my copy of the bible.

Other than that I am afraid I don't really understand the question
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Postby Bert » Tue Mar 07, 2006 12:20 am

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Postby IreneY » Tue Mar 07, 2006 4:13 am

well, similar. More like other worshiped while others....

as for Kai and tines, I just copied them out of the book
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Postby ThomasGR » Tue Mar 07, 2006 4:34 am

Bert: Do καί and τινές really have acute accents or did you mistype?

These signs are not accute neither grave accents, but signs where to put your stress in a syllable.
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Postby Kopio » Tue Mar 07, 2006 6:24 am

IreneY wrote:I meant my copy of the bible.

Other than that I am afraid I don't really understand the question

What I mean is....who is it published by. I am assuming it is a standard(?) modern Greek Bible. What version is it? Does that make sense? I guess it is a little different for me....I use a NIV (New International Version) for my day to day English Bible. I also really like the Philips translation, but then again, these are both translations...to where yours would be more of a version I guess. Do you own a critical Greek Text, like the NA27 or UBS4??
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Postby IreneY » Tue Mar 07, 2006 6:46 am

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