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Matthew 10:32 reads; Πᾶς οὖν ὅστις ?μολογήσει ?ν ?μοὶ ἔμπ?οσθεν τῶν ἀνθ?ώπων, ?μολογήσω κἀγὼ ?ν α?τῷ ἔμπ?οσθεν τοῦ πατ?ός μου τοῦ ?ν τοῖς ο??ανοῖς·
I am curious about the preposition after ?μολογέω instead of a simple dative.
I considered that it may have to do with Hebrew or Aramaic idiom but Luke uses the same construction.
What is the difference between using the preposition compared to using the simple dative.
The construction with ?ν is apparently an Aramaism.
BDF says that the basic construction, ?μολογεῖν ἔν τινι means "to acknowledge someone". But it also says that this meaning could also be conveyed by the (mere) dative, the simple accusative or the double accusative.