ὀμολογέω followed by ἑν

[Bert]

Matthew 10:32 reads; Πᾶς οὖν ὅστις á½￾μολογήσει á¼￾ν á¼￾μοὶ ἔμπÏ￾οσθεν τῶν ἀνθÏ￾ώπων, á½￾μολογήσω κἀγὼ á¼￾ν αá½￾Ï„á¿· ἔμπÏ￾οσθεν τοῦ πατÏ￾ός μου τοῦ á¼￾ν τοῖς οá½￾Ï￾ανοῖς·
I am curious about the preposition after á½￾μολογέω instead of a simple dative.
I considered that it may have to do with Hebrew or Aramaic idiom but Luke uses the same construction.
What is the difference between using the preposition compared to using the simple dative.

[Paul]

Hi Bert,

The construction with á¼￾ν is apparently an Aramaism.

BDF says that the basic construction, á½￾μολογεῖν ἔν τινι means "to acknowledge someone". But it also says that this meaning could also be conveyed by the (mere) dative, the simple accusative or the double accusative.

Cordially,

Paul

[Bert]

Thanks Paul.
Isn't it surpising that Luke, a Greek, would use an Aramaism.