2.) when the protasis contains a future perfect and the apodosis a future, as:
if... will have..., (then...) will....
it is normally translated into English with the protasis in the present and the apodosis in the future. Therefore, your sentence translated as a future more vivid would be "If he gives (lit. 'will have given') the torch to the sailor, I will see the gate". You seem to have confused 'logical' with 'euphonic': the second option makes perfect sense, it just wasn''t great English. Logic really has very little to do with what tenses we use in conditionals in Latin or in English, though when it comes to future more vivid, I think the future perfect makes great sense, since normally one future action must happen before the result can happen, and the future perfect happens just before the future to reflect this.
1.) from the other end, perfect subjunctive would not make much sense here, which should be apparent to you because none of the conditionals you have learnt may contain the combination of tenses 'future indicative' and 'perfect subjunctive'. Conditionals usually have both parts in the same tense (except with future and future perfect, and mixed conditionals) and I don't believe I know of an instance where the two verbs of the conditional would differ in mood.
flebile nescio quid queritur lyra, flebile lingua murmurat exanimis, respondent flebile ripae