Iliad 2:195

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Bert
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Iliad 2:195

Post by Bert »

[size=150]μή τι χολωσάμενος ῥέξῃ κακὸν υἷας )αχαιῶν.[/size]
I understand every word but I am not sure about which word belongs to which.
Does mh/ belong to ti (not anything) or to the participle (not angering) or the the finite verb (not doing).
Does ti belong to kako/n (something evil)?

chad
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Post by chad »

Hi Bert, here I read that mh/ goes with r(e/ch| (a construction related to 1.26, expressing object of fear) and r(e/ch| takes a double accusative, kako/n and ui(=aj.

The commentators don't agree on which word ti goes with, e.g.:

Benner says kako/n: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/pt ... &loc=2.195

It looks like Goodwin agrees (s 261): http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/pt ... 0005%3a261

Seymour however says mh/: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/pt ... &loc=2.195

Paul
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Post by Paul »

Hi Bert,

Rearranging the word order:

[size=150]μή ῥέξῃ χολωσάμενος τι κακὸν υἷας )αχαιῶν [/size]

"May he not work in anger some evil against the sons of the Achaeans".

At least that's how I see it.

Cordially,

Paul

chad
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Post by chad »

hi, after lunch I've come back to this little point again; Willcock also takes ti with mh/.

on reading Goodwin's section again he may be taking ti (neut. acc.) as adverb to r(e/ch| (i.e. r(e/ch| ti), not as indefinite to kako/n (i.e. kako/n ti) as I first read him, I'm not sure exactly how he takes it

oh yeah and I meant Iliad 1.28 in my first post, not 1.26. I was just reading Goodwin 263 about this before I posted. :)

Paul
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Post by Paul »

Hi,

Simply to add to the stew, Cunliffe construes [size=150]τι[/size] with [size=150]κακόν[/size].

Cordially,

Paul

Bert
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Post by Bert »

Considering the multitude of opinions, I don't have to be embarrassed for stewing over this.
Thanks.

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