If a good tree produces bad fruit, then is that tree actually bad and not good, for a good tree would never produce bad fruit to begin with, and so, the tree itself is evil.
That is what my Latin/Philosohpy Instructor has agreed on; however, I proposed an inversion of this argument.
If a bad tree produces good fruit, does that not make the tree good. Because a bad tree would never produce good fruit, and therefore cannot be bad. However, the tree is trapped, it can neither be good nor bad. Because the argument stands to say that the tree cannot be which so as long as it produces both good and bad fruit, which falls in the shade of grey(a color my instructor despises), no absolute.
I don't know about this logic, it just sounds really odd. Basically, I'm looking for clarity in my logic. Does it make sense to reverse the argument of this old saying? And can it be disputed.
I'm trying to discern whether or not the idea of an absolute can be justified here. Is my inversion logical or not? Because my instructor didn't agree with me on the inversion of this logic.
I looked at it from the perspective, that our society holds "goodness" at a clean, untouched entity that if it's tainted, is no longer "good" but soiled. Thus, if goodness is soiled, it should be evil or dirty.
However, I'm reversing the concept by saying, what if our society took "evilness" or "badness" as a main direction in life, if it is soiled with goodness, isn't the "evilness" no longer evil? Why can't the reverse in logic work for evil, why just good? Or can it be argued?
Tell me if I'm making sense and you see my reasoning, if not, I'll try and clarify more.


