I'm working out of the White, and came across this sentence to translate, which confused me a bit:
[face=spionic] keleu/sei to\n strathgo\n tou\j a)nqrw/pouj lu/ein. [/face] Does this translate as "He commanded the general to destroy the men"? Or "He commanded the general; he destroys the men"? Neither seem right.
Just got it. [face=spionic]lu/ein[/face] is an infinitive. So "He commanded the general to destroy the men" is right, right? For some reason I though the subjunctive might be needed to make that sentence, like in French.
Thanks annis. So, just to check, a similar sentence translated into Greek from the same page:
"He will command the general to pursue the enemy."
[face=spionic]keleu/sei to\n strathgo\n tou\j pole/miouj diw/kein [/face] Presumably there's some word-order rule to determine which verb applies to which accusative noun.
I suppose it would not be too odd if "he wi0ll order the men to free the general" were the meaning - at least if it were the general of a different army, or if the general was captured by the enemy or something. But, in the context vacuum, I woud go with "he will order the general to free the men."