Eureka wrote:Do modern editions of the Iliad contain any digammas at all?
Line 33 is definitely missing a digamma in [face=SPIonic]e1dveisen[/face], and, as a result, the line no longer scans. Is it known whether performances in 5th century Athens would have involved the digamma-sound in words such as this?
annis wrote:If I recall correctly, it's not entirely clear Homer would have pronounced the digamma any longer.
Various thingsannis wrote:Probably not. Based on hints from orthography, various things were tried to make the verses scan where possible.
Eureka wrote:Various things
Eureka wrote::? So, what do we do if the necessary digamma came at the beginning of the word?
annis wrote:Eureka wrote::? So, what do we do if the necessary digamma came at the beginning of the word?
What do you mean?
Eureka wrote:It seems somehow less kosher to double the nu in this case, making it [face=SPIonic]kako\n ne/rgon[/face].
annis wrote: the Homeric dictionary that lives in my brain has most of the digammas. I pronounce them but I'm not sure others should follow my lead in this.
chad wrote:hi, i remember that vox graeca discusses the /y/ think if that means consonantal i, i don't know that standard pronunciation/phonetic symbol thing.
cweb255 wrote:Sorry, it was making nouns like phulake into verbs, which you get phulatto, this is the result of the lost /y/ sound in Greek.
Bardo de Saldo wrote:"If you put a digamma before outh I don’t see how that would change anything." (Me.)
Bardo de Saldo wrote:The lines of the masters always scan, Mr. chad. If a bard can’t make an hexameter out of a line of Homer, he should blame his rhythm stick.
If epimémthetai was followed by a word starting with a consonant, would it loose its accent?
547. Final ai and oi are counted short when determining the accent, except in the optative and in oi)/koi... These diphthongs are regularly long in metrical quantity, and must be so treated when reading the verse, although considered short when determining the accent.
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