Thanks for the reply klewlis. I've only studied Greek eclectically, when my attention is drawn to a certain subject. Recently it was drawn to this passage. In my research I've come across a number of exegetical works which state what you have stated. The reason being given is that the verb is transitive to the subject of the passage, ie the lawless.
But there is never given an actual criteria for determining how to identify such a transitive verb. I have downloaded all of the Greek grammars a good while ago and cannot find any reference to this particular subject.
Would you, or anyone, be able to tell me if this is true; and, if so, how you have recognized this as a transitive?