According to Wheelock, the perfect tense can be either primary or secondary sequence. But when is it primary and when is it secondary?
Which of these (I bet it's neither... ) translations of "He came to run" is correct:
Venit ut currat. - Primary sequence
Venit ut curreret. - Secondary sequence
Sequence of tenses
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The first "venit ut currat" can be read without the long vowel being known, assuming -e- in venit is short, "he comes to run". However it may also be which I presume is your intention "he has come to run", with venit still being perfect but a primary tense definite perfect which of course refers to present time, thus currat is in the present subjunctive. venit ut curreret is an example of the perfect indefinite corresponding to the spanish preterite perfect french past historic etc. which are as in Latin secondary tenses, hence the imperfect subjunctive curreret. So obviously it will be the second
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i think what was expressed ὑπ' ἐπισκόπου so pellucidly, was that if you include 'have' in the english, i.e. 'he has come to run' (which is a true perfect) then it takes primary sequence. if the has/have isn't there, i.e. 'he came to run' (which is an aoristic or preterite tense) then it takes secondary sequence.
~D
~D
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That is the Greek Font, you need this link viewtopic.php?t=111
I am sorry my explanation was slightly harsh, I did not realise that you are in Sweden. My fault
(I am starting Swedish in the next few days, so if you need any Latin help I just PM me, also if I need any help with Swedish I will PM you! If you don't mind!)
I am sorry my explanation was slightly harsh, I did not realise that you are in Sweden. My fault
(I am starting Swedish in the next few days, so if you need any Latin help I just PM me, also if I need any help with Swedish I will PM you! If you don't mind!)