Pharr: Lesson 15, trans. (G-E), #3

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PeterD
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Pharr: Lesson 15, trans. (G-E), #3

Post by PeterD »

Hi,

It appears that the Homeric board has been a tad quiet of late. Time to rouse it up!

In Lesson 15, trans. (G-E), #3, we have the following clause:

τὸν γὰρ βασιλεὺς )ατρείδης ἐχόλωσεν (for the king, son of Atreus, enraged him)

Does not the verb in the clause take a dative object? If so, should it not be τῷ instead of τόν?

Thank you,

~PeterD

P.S. How is the diaeresis represented in SPIonic?
Fanatical ranting is not just fine because it's eloquent. What if I ranted for the extermination of a people in an eloquent manner, would that make it fine? Rather, ranting, be it fanatical or otherwise, is fine if what is said is true and just. ---PeterD, in reply to IreneY and Annis

annis
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Re: Pharr: Lesson 15, trans. (G-E), #3

Post by annis »

PeterD wrote:Does not the verb in the clause take a dative object? If so, should it not be τῷ instead of τόν?
It could be, but χολόω can take acc. or dat. of the person angered in Homer.
P.S. How is the diaeresis represented in SPIonic?
+ : o)i/+w makes ὀΐω.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;

PeterD
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Post by PeterD »

Thank you, William.

The reason I asked was because in line 1.9 it's βασιλῆι χολωθείς. And, Pharr does indeed stress (section 996) that these type of verbs take a dative object.
Fanatical ranting is not just fine because it's eloquent. What if I ranted for the extermination of a people in an eloquent manner, would that make it fine? Rather, ranting, be it fanatical or otherwise, is fine if what is said is true and just. ---PeterD, in reply to IreneY and Annis

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