Hi,
It appears that the Homeric board has been a tad quiet of late. Time to rouse it up!
In Lesson 15, trans. (G-E), #3, we have the following clause:
τὸν γὰρ βασιλεὺς )ατρείδης ἐχόλωσεν (for the king, son of Atreus, enraged him)
Does not the verb in the clause take a dative object? If so, should it not be τῷ instead of τόν?
Thank you,
~PeterD
P.S. How is the diaeresis represented in SPIonic?
Pharr: Lesson 15, trans. (G-E), #3
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Pharr: Lesson 15, trans. (G-E), #3
Fanatical ranting is not just fine because it's eloquent. What if I ranted for the extermination of a people in an eloquent manner, would that make it fine? Rather, ranting, be it fanatical or otherwise, is fine if what is said is true and just. ---PeterD, in reply to IreneY and Annis
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Re: Pharr: Lesson 15, trans. (G-E), #3
It could be, but χολόω can take acc. or dat. of the person angered in Homer.PeterD wrote:Does not the verb in the clause take a dative object? If so, should it not be τῷ instead of τόν?
+ : o)i/+w makes ὀΐω.P.S. How is the diaeresis represented in SPIonic?
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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Thank you, William.
The reason I asked was because in line 1.9 it's βασιλῆι χολωθείς. And, Pharr does indeed stress (section 996) that these type of verbs take a dative object.
The reason I asked was because in line 1.9 it's βασιλῆι χολωθείς. And, Pharr does indeed stress (section 996) that these type of verbs take a dative object.
Fanatical ranting is not just fine because it's eloquent. What if I ranted for the extermination of a people in an eloquent manner, would that make it fine? Rather, ranting, be it fanatical or otherwise, is fine if what is said is true and just. ---PeterD, in reply to IreneY and Annis