uden allo... e
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uden allo... e
On pages 18 and 19 of Thrasymachus there are a couple of sentences with οὐδὲν ἄλλο followed by η2 later in the sentence.
I think οὐδὲν ἄλλο means "no-one else", but I can't see how η2 fits in. It seems to be a non-literal expression.
Here are the quotes: (Both from Aphrodite.)
ἁμαρτάνετε, ὦ φίλαι· οὐδὲν γὰρ ἄλλο ἢ φιλεῖ τὰς γυναῖκας, ὡ/σπερ οἱ ἄλλοι ἄνδρες. ἀλλ 0οὐδὲν ἄλλο λέγω ἢ περὶ τῶν ἀνθρώπων.
My translations:
"You are making a mistake, friends; because no-one else likes women, like the other men."
"But I talk to no-one about humanity."
I'm sure my translations are wrong, because the first one makes very little sense, and the second seems like a very random statement. (This is supposed to be at the judgment of Paris.)
Can someone please shed some light on this, because it's all Greek to me?
I think οὐδὲν ἄλλο means "no-one else", but I can't see how η2 fits in. It seems to be a non-literal expression.
Here are the quotes: (Both from Aphrodite.)
ἁμαρτάνετε, ὦ φίλαι· οὐδὲν γὰρ ἄλλο ἢ φιλεῖ τὰς γυναῖκας, ὡ/σπερ οἱ ἄλλοι ἄνδρες. ἀλλ 0οὐδὲν ἄλλο λέγω ἢ περὶ τῶν ἀνθρώπων.
My translations:
"You are making a mistake, friends; because no-one else likes women, like the other men."
"But I talk to no-one about humanity."
I'm sure my translations are wrong, because the first one makes very little sense, and the second seems like a very random statement. (This is supposed to be at the judgment of Paris.)
Can someone please shed some light on this, because it's all Greek to me?
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As a side note, I just found the definition of ἤ as "than" in Thrasymachus. It's in the English to Greek vocab but not in the Greek to English. For a book first pubished four decades ago, it has a fair few errors. (It's an excellent book, though.)
BTW, does anyone else's copy of the book have a few wayward kappas? (i.e. [size=150]κἀγαθός[/size] instead of [size=150]ἀγαθός[/size])
BTW, does anyone else's copy of the book have a few wayward kappas? (i.e. [size=150]κἀγαθός[/size] instead of [size=150]ἀγαθός[/size])
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Oh, I didn't think even a contracted word could have a breathing mark on a non-initial vowel.mingshey wrote:Yeah, I think so. As far as I can recall.Koala wrote:yes, my Thrasymachus has [size=150]κ’ἀγαθός[/size] too - but I've always taken it
as a contraction of [size=150]καὶ ἀγαθός[/size] -
? is this correct[face=Arial][/face]
(BTW, mine doesn't say [size=150]κ’ἀγαθός[/size], it says [size=150]κἀγαθός[/size].)
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Technically that's not a breathing mark, but a sign of crasis. Of course, it looks like a breathing mark. But if you have crasis in καὶ ὁ you write χὠ, not χὡ.Emma_85 wrote:They do still retain their breathing marks, though, so you can tell if they are contracted or not.Oh, I didn't think even a contracted word could have a breathing mark on a non-initial vowel.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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Ahh... thanks, I thought the contraction with an aspirated word itself was called krasis, hehehe seems a bit stupid now that I think about it .Technically that's not a breathing mark, but a sign of crasis. Of course, it looks like a breathing mark. But if you have crasis in kai\ o( you write xw), not xw(.
Well you can have krasis with other words too, such as:
τἀ=λλα < τὰ ἄλλα
or (a more annoying contraction)
τοὐναντίον < τὸ ἐναντίον
All you need to remember is that if you find a word with a krasis you'll have to work out which word it originally came from.
τοὐναντίον
The krasis tells you it's a contraction, and ou is often a contraction product of e + o, o + e, o + ou, o + o; Hehehe, then all you have to do is see what makes sense and what doesn't.
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