Od. 7. 21 wrote:ἀνείρετο
(Don't worry, it is not about the imperfect of this verb that I will ask about ). Here is my doubt: in tmesis or in composed verbs, ἀνα adds the notion of either "up" or "again". Right? I am not sure, then, how ἀνα modifies the sense of εἴρομαι. "Ask again"? But "ask again" wouldn't have sense here, because Odysseus is addressing Athena in the form of a young maiden whom he is supposed to see for the first time.
Od. 7. 30-31 wrote:ἀλλ᾽ ἴθι σιγῇ τοῖον, ἐγὼ δ᾽ ὁδὸν ἡγεμονεύσω,
μηδέ τιν᾽ ἀνθρώπων προτιόσσεο μηδ᾽ ἐρέεινε.
Geoffrey Steadman's notes say that τοῖον is an adverb here, but I always understand this word as a comparative one that requires an antecedent, and here I don't see the antecedent. Is somekind of anacoluthon? "Go in such silence...".
Od. 7. 48-49 wrote:οὗτος δή τοι, ξεῖνε πάτερ, δόμος, ὅν με κελεύεις
I wandered why is this infinitive in the perfect tense, and I found that Smyth says this about indirect discourse:
"Smyth #2019 wrote: Each tense of direct discourse is retained (with its proper meaning as regards stage of action) when it becomes infinitive in indirect discourse; but an imperfect is represented by the present infinitive; a pluperfect, by the perfect infinitive.
But I would like to confirm if this is the right explanation.