I'm picking my way back through the Symposium, and this line from fairly early in (Apollodorus is JUST beginning to tell the story of the banquet to his companions) is confusing me a bit:
"Ἔφη γάρ οἰ Σωκράτη ἐντυχεῖν λελυμένον τε καὶ τὰς βλαύτας ὑποδεδεμένον...."
My understanding of the grammar is that this is indirect speech, so Socrates is an accusative subject with an infinitive verb (ἐντυχεῖν). Ἐντυχεῖν then takes a dative object (οἰ), so I would translate this all as "for he [Aristodemus] said Socrates, having bathed and put slippers on his feet, chanced upon him [Aristodemus]...."
However all my translations have Aristodemus as the subject (or are at best ambiguous). Are they all wrong, or am I simply missing yet another freakish exception in Greek grammar?