huilen wrote:καὶ λίην σε πάρος γ' οὐτ' εἴρομαι οὔτε μετάλλῶ,
ἀλλὰ μάλ' εὔκηλος τὰ φράζεαι, ἅσσ' ἐθέλῃσθα
(Iliad I. 553)
...why is not some past tense used instead of εἴρομαι/μετάλλῶ?
...should I let the conjuntion καί untranslated here?
Markos wrote:...should I let the conjuntion καί untranslated here?
Yes, the force of the connectives are to be felt rather than ignored or translated.
I think the present is used to make the tone more vivid and lively, sort of like the historical present.
Maybe it's easier to understand the present if you translate πάρος "until now" (at least mentally, to internalize the construction)
Users browsing this forum: Exabot [Bot] and 10 guests