...that there is a gap (a glottal stop)
spqr wrote:Why wouldn't consonantal y pronunciation be used in these examples?
i is consonantal at the beginning of a word when followed by a vowel and in the middle of a word when it falls between vowels(biiugis, pronounced "bi-yugis"). i may also be consonantal in the middle of a compound.
Virgil, Aeneid I.376, wrote:"Troiae nomen iit, diversa per aequora vectos"
Virgil, Aeneid II.174, wrote:sudor iit, terque ipsa solo (mirabile dictu)
Gildersleeve (http://archive.org/stream/gildersleeveslat00gilduoft/gildersleeveslat00gilduoft_djvu.txt) wrote:"2. In the first and third persons Sing, and in the first person PL of the Perfect, syncope occurs regularly only in Perfects in ivi, and no contraction ensues."
Qimmik wrote:Examples from hexameters will always be ambiguous.
Benè moratus sis, mvh. // Behave, mvh.mvh wrote:I will comment no further on your latin, if that is sort of response I get to what I took to be a sincere plea for correction.
Craig_Thomas wrote:Someone might argue that 'i' could still be a consonant in 'jit', but made a vowel in the compound to avoid the difficult to pronounce 'exjit'.
J. N. Adams in Social Variation and the Latin Language (2013) notes that, in contrast with Plautus' Latin, where eō/is/it/eunt/ii/iit abound, the short conjugations of eō are pretty much limited to poetry already in the 1st c. BC...Craig_Thomas wrote:Would these, with 'exiit', satisfy? 'iit', it turns out, is quite a rare form!