uberdwayne wrote:τί σημαίνει τὸ "περιτμηθῆναι?"
σημανει "περιτμηθηναι" οτι ο φαλλος εκοφθη περι σαρκος. εστιν σημειον Διαθεικης της παλαιης.
καλῶς γε ἀπεκρίθης, φίλε. σύμφημι γὰρ ὅτι σημαίνει "περιτμηθῆναι" ὅτι ὁ φαλλὸς ἐκόπη περὶ σαρκός καὶ ἔστιν σημεῖον τῆς Διαθήκης τῆς παλαιᾶς.
πλέον ὕστερον μὲν γράψω, νῦν δὲ πολὴν ἐργασίαν ἔγωγε ἔχω.
{I don't mean at all to imply that ἐκόφθη is wrong. I'm glad you wrote that, because it caused me to look it up. The lexicons say that there is a second aorist ἐκόπην, but if the verb was formed regularly, ἐκόφθην would indeed be the correct form. It may not be listed in the lexicons because it happens not to be attested.
In my humble opinion, this is the best way to internalize the forms. Actively produce them and then, when you get a chance, test this against the attested forms. (with the caveat that the attested forms and usage represent only a fracture of what was (and is?) a living, evolving language.) The reason we are writing in Greek, remember, is that to make it easier for us to read, and I am convinced that we are less likely to struggle with a form like ἐκόπην, when we find it in real reading, (or ἐβρέχθην/ἐβράχην, a word we have used a lot over on the weather thread, which happens to have left behind attested forms of a both a first and second aorist passive) if we continue to write in Ancient Greek, mistakes and all.}
οὐ μανθάνω γράφειν, ἀλλὰ γράφω τοῦ μαθεῖν.