Hey,
Mounce lists this verb as being aor act subj 3 sg. The trouble I'm having is that I can't understand why that's the case! I have looked through 'morphology of biblical greek' but am left none the wiser. If anyone is able to explain the form I would be most grateful. Thank you.
Benjamin.
morphological help please. Mk 8.37 'doi'
-
- Textkit Neophyte
- Posts: 27
- Joined: Thu Feb 23, 2012 10:26 pm
-
- Textkit Fan
- Posts: 266
- Joined: Sun Oct 10, 2010 3:29 am
- Location: Ontario, Canada
Re: morphological help please. Mk 8.37 'doi'
Don't forget that this is a μι verb. Non-indicative moods also do not utilize the augment (initial "ε"). Because its Aorist, and we do not have the initial reduplication either. So it would look something like this with the 3rd singular ending added: δοσι. the "intervocalic sigma" drops out because it doesn't like being between vowels and thus we get δοι. Everywhere else in the NT it appears as "δῳ". it looks as though that "δοι" is a variant spelling of δῳ, which is also Aoirst Active Subjunctive 3s of διδομι.
μείζων ἐστὶν ὁ ἐν ὑμῖν ἢ ὁ ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ
-
- Textkit Neophyte
- Posts: 27
- Joined: Thu Feb 23, 2012 10:26 pm
Re: morphological help please. Mk 8.37 'doi'
Thank you for your reply, very helpful indeed.