Isaac Newton wrote:
On another note Markos, I was looking at verse 11,
εἰς τὰ ἴδια ἦλθεν καὶ οἱ ἴδιοι αὐτὸν οὐ παρέλαβον.
Here again we have constructio ad sensum with αὐτὸν (masculine) referring to φῶς (neuter).
I aslo picked up on something unusual here. Notice the first instance of the adjective τὰ ἴδια is neuter, but the second is masculine οἱ ἴδιοι . The author is able to use both the neuter and masculine here because the referrent is φῶς , so that neuter τὰ ἴδια is agreeing with φῶς in grammatical gender, but the οἱ ἴδιοι with actual or natural gender. Is this correct, or do you think there is some other explanation ?
No, I don't think that the gender of φῶς directly effects the gender of τὰ ἴδια or οἱ ἴδιοι because these are not properly pronouns with antecedents, but rather adjectives used here as substantives. The former is generally construed as "his own things, his own sphere, his own business, his own land and houses," while the later refers to "his own people, his own folks." I think maybe τὰ ἴδια is Judaism and οἱ ἴδιοι is the Jewish people.
The distinction, though is subtle, and the ABS Modern Greek ignores it:
εἰς τοὺς δικούς του ἦλθε ἀλλ΄οἱ δικοί του δὲν ἐδέχθησαν.
So, it is possible that having made a gender switch from ἀυτὀ (v. 5) to αὐτόν (v. 11,) this was somehow in John's mind as an echo when he wrote τὰ ἴδια/οἱ ἴδιοι. The latter is not properly a constructio ad sensum, but it may have been partially sparked by one.