uberdwayne wrote:In 1 John 2:15, John writes "μη αγαπατε τον κοσμον" how would it change the meaning of the text if he had written "μη αγαπησατε τον κοσμον" instead.
I often hear that the present imperative indicates a cessation of an act already in progress, but in this passage it seems to be more of a general exhortation.
Porter places a good bit of emphasis on the present as the marked aspect, especially in the subjunctive and imperative moods. Part of the argument is that the aorist is more frequent than the present (p. 323). But this distribution is not consistent among the various authors. The present imperative in Paul, for example, is at least three times more frequent than the aorist (the difference is considerably greater if we leave out of account the more than 20 instances of ἀσπάσασθε, most of which occur in Rom. 16).
uberdwayne wrote:In 1 John 2:15, John writes "μη αγαπατε τον κοσμον" how would it change the meaning of the text if he had written "μη αγαπησατε τον κοσμον" instead.
uberdwayne wrote:Batholomew... I can't say though, that Im entirely sure what you mean by "foregrounding and backgrounding." Is this a concept that Stephen Runge writes about in his discourse grammar (I saw you mention Runge)?
uberdwayne wrote:Μαρκος... That begs the question then.... How would the meaning be different if John had said "μη αγαπησητε τον κοσμον" ?
παλιν ευχαριστω υμιν
uberdwayne wrote:so in your first reply, the act of "μη αγαπατε" is foregrounded against the backdrop of "τον κοσμον"? I understand from your post that this is disputed, but for the sake of my own understanding, this would bring out the seriousness on "μη αγαπατε" and if it was aorist, it would not?
Perhaps we should search for some?
uberdwayne wrote:(quoting Irene) Perhaps we should search for some?
John 3:7 used the aorist:
μὴ θαυμάσῃς ὅτι εἶπόν σοι, Δεῖ ὑμᾶς γεννηθῆναι ἄνωθεν.
John 5:28 used the present:
μὴ θαυμάζετε τοῦτο, ὅτι ἔρχεται ὥρα ἐν ἧ πάντες οἱ ἐν τοῖς μνημείοις ἀκούσουσιν τῆς φωνῆς αὐτοῦ
Smyth, Greek Grammar, 1841e:
The distinction (between μὴ γράφε and μὴ γράψῃς) is often immaterial, often a difference of tone rather than of meaning; sometimes too subtle for dogmatic statement.
Don't start loving the world, now.
I want you to stop loving the world!
John 3:7 used the aorist:
μὴ θαυμάσῃς ὅτι εἶπόν σοι, Δεῖ ὑμᾶς γεννηθῆναι ἄνωθεν.
John 5:28 used the present:
μὴ θαυμάζετε τοῦτο, ὅτι ἔρχεται ὥρα ἐν ἧ πάντες οἱ ἐν τοῖς μνημείοις ἀκούσουσιν τῆς φωνῆς αὐτοῦ
IF THE CONTEXT SUPPORTS IT
Matthew 19:6
ὥστε οὐκέτι εἰσὶ δύο, αλλα σaρξ μία. ὃ οὖν ὁ Θεὸς συνέζευξεν, ἄνθρωπος μὴ χωριζέτω
uberdwayne wrote:Is there an aorist example of continually observed command?
Mark 10:19:
τὰς ἐντολὰς οἶδας: Μὴ φονεύσῃς, Μὴ μοιχεύσῃς, Μὴ κλέψῃς, Μὴ ψευδομαρτυρήσῃς, Μὴ ἀποστερήσῃς...
Is it a good "general" rule to say that a present...prohibition is used to state a prohibition that needs to be continually observed?
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