A. Ag. 1596 ff.
[...]ὁ δ' αὐτῶν αὐτίκ᾽ ἀγνοίᾳ λαβὼν
ἔσθει, βορὰν ἄσωτον, ὡς ὁρᾷς, γένει·
κἄπειτ᾽ ἐπιγνοὺς ἔργον οὐ καταίσιον
ᾤμωξεν, ἀμπίπτει δ᾽ ἀπὸ σφαγὴν ἐρῶν,
μόρον δ᾽ ἄφερτον Πελοπίδαις ἐπεύχεται,
λάκτισμα δείπνου ξυνδίκως τιθεὶς ἀρᾷ,
οὕτως ὀλέσθαι πᾶν τὸ Πλεισθένους γένος.
"and Thyestes at once, in ignorance, took some of it and ate it, a meal that, as you now see, was ruinous for the family. Then, when he recognized the unrighteous deed, he howled aloud, fell backwards while vomiting out the slaughtered remains, and called down an unendurable fate on the house of Pelops, kicking over the table to chime with his curse: "So perish all the race of Pleisthenes!" (Sommerstein)
This immediately follows a profoundly corrupted passage, but that's irrelevant for now. What I'm wondering are the presents ἔσθει, ἀμπίπτει, ἐπεύχεται. This looks like a historical or narrative present, i.e. a present tense used in a narrative of past events for a dramatic effect. I didn't know Attic had such a form. At least Pierre Chantraine explicitly says this form doesn't exist in Homeric Greek (Grammaire Homérique, tome II, p. 191; Odyssey 8.104 ff. seems to be an exception to this and is considered either interpolated or transposed by some scholars (at least R. D. Dawe and M.L. West, I can dig out the exact references if somebody wants))