Good morning all!
I read the following in John Gill's commentary on Matthew 28:1:
"In the end of the sabbath,.... This clause is by some joined to the last verse of the preceding chapter..."
In other words, it would read like this in the English:
So they went with the guard and made the tomb secure, sealing the stone after the Sabbath. As it began to dawn on the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to see the tomb.
οἱ δὲ πορευθέντες ἠσφαλίσαντο τὸν τάφον σφραγίσαντες τὸν λίθον μετὰ τῆς κουστωδίας Ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν σαββάτων ἦλθεν Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ καὶ ἡ ἄλλη Μαριὰ θεωρῆσαι τὸν τάφον
Is it possible that Ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων are actually the last words of the previous verse? Is such a rendering allowable by the Greek? Why or why not?