Textkit Logo

Matthew 27:66/28:1

Here's where you can discuss all things Ancient Greek. Use this board to ask questions about grammar, discuss learning strategies, get translation help and more!

Matthew 27:66/28:1

Postby BrianHoeck » Tue Jun 18, 2013 2:21 pm

Good morning all!

I read the following in John Gill's commentary on Matthew 28:1:

"In the end of the sabbath,.... This clause is by some joined to the last verse of the preceding chapter..."

In other words, it would read like this in the English:

So they went with the guard and made the tomb secure, sealing the stone after the Sabbath. As it began to dawn on the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to see the tomb.

οἱ δὲ πορευθέντες ἠσφαλίσαντο τὸν τάφον σφραγίσαντες τὸν λίθον μετὰ τῆς κουστωδίας Ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν σαββάτων ἦλθεν Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ καὶ ἡ ἄλλη Μαριὰ θεωρῆσαι τὸν τάφον

Is it possible that Ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων are actually the last words of the previous verse? Is such a rendering allowable by the Greek? Why or why not?

Thank you!
BrianHoeck
Textkit Neophyte
 
Posts: 5
Joined: Wed Jun 12, 2013 2:03 pm

Re: Matthew 27:66/28:1

Postby Markos » Tue Jun 18, 2013 9:40 pm

οἱ δὲ πορευθέντες ἠσφαλίσαντο τὸν τάφον σφραγίσαντες τὸν λίθον μετὰ τῆς κουστωδίας Ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν σαββάτων ἦλθεν Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ καὶ ἡ ἄλλη Μαριὰ θεωρῆσαι τὸν τάφον

Is it possible that Ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων are actually the last words of the previous verse? Is such a rendering allowable by the Greek? Why or why not?


No, it's virtually impossible. δέ almost always starts a clause (except when joined with a μέν.)
Markos
Textkit Zealot
 
Posts: 1382
Joined: Sun Jun 21, 2009 8:07 pm
Location: Colorado


Return to Learning Greek

Who is online

Users browsing this forum: No registered users and 74 guests