I recently read an article that claims Matthew 27:62 should be understood this way:
Matthew 27:62 Now the next day that followed, [being] the day of the preparation, the chief priests and Pharisees came together unto Pilate,
In other words, that the "next day" spoken of was the day of preparation.
Does the structure of the Greek allow such a rendering? Why or why not?
Τῇ δὲ ἐπαύριον, ἥτις ἐστιν μετὰ τὴν παρασκευήν
And the next day which is after the preparation
conjunction adverb relative pronoun verb preposition article noun
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Matthew 27:62
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Re: Matthew 27:62
The accusative τὴν παρασκευήν makes this understanding impossible. It would have to be something likeI recently read an article that claims Matthew 27:62 should be understood this way:
Matthew 27:62 Now the next day that followed, [being] the day of the preparation,
Τῇ δὲ ἐπαύριον, ἥτις ἐστιν μετὰ τὴν παρασκευήν
τῇ δὲ ἐπαύριον, ἥτις ἐστὶν ἡ ἡμέρα μετὰ ἐκείνην τὴν ἡμέραν, ἡ παρασκευὴ...
Not that anyone would ever write anything like this, since "the next day that followed" is just as redundant in Greek as it is in English. (Is there a next day that does NOT follow?)
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Re: Matthew 27:62
So Saturday basically? Paraskevi = Friday, and the day would therefore be Saturday, the Sabbath, Savvato with Sunday being the lord's day, Kyriakh.
The next day, that is, after the day of Preparation = The day after tomorrow, being after Friday.
You have meta plus accusative, so its pretty clear.
The next day, that is, after the day of Preparation = The day after tomorrow, being after Friday.
You have meta plus accusative, so its pretty clear.
(Occasionally) Working on the following tutorials:
(P)Aristotle, Theophrastus and Peripatetic Greek
Intro Greek Poetry
Latin Historical Prose
(P)Aristotle, Theophrastus and Peripatetic Greek
Intro Greek Poetry
Latin Historical Prose
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Re: Matthew 27:62
Thank you, Markos and Scribo! I truly appreciate your input.
Is there anyone here who believes the Greek would allow this rendering?
Is there anyone here who believes the Greek would allow this rendering?
BrianHoeck wrote:I recently read an article that claims Matthew 27:62 should be understood this way:
Matthew 27:62 Now the next day that followed, [being] the day of the preparation, the chief priests and Pharisees came together unto Pilate,
In other words, that the "next day" spoken of was the day of preparation.
Does the structure of the Greek allow such a rendering? Why or why not?
Τῇ δὲ ἐπαύριον, ἥτις ἐστιν μετὰ τὴν παρασκευήν
And the next day which is after the preparation
conjunction adverb relative pronoun verb preposition article noun