I recently read an article that claims Matthew 27:62 should be understood this way:
Matthew 27:62 Now the next day that followed, [being] the day of the preparation,
Τῇ δὲ ἐπαύριον, ἥτις ἐστιν μετὰ τὴν παρασκευήν
The accusative τὴν παρασκευήν makes this understanding impossible. It would have to be something like
τῇ δὲ ἐπαύριον, ἥτις ἐστὶν ἡ ἡμέρα μετὰ ἐκείνην τὴν ἡμέραν, ἡ παρασκευὴ...
Not that anyone would ever write anything like this, since "the next day that followed" is just as redundant in Greek as it is in English. (Is there a next day that does NOT follow?)