I'm reading Lysias I (On the Murder of Erathostenes) in the edition by Geoffrey Steadman and encountered the following difficulty
εἰδὼς δ᾽ ἐγὼ ὅτι τηνικαῦτα ἀφιγμένος οὐδένα καταλήψοιτο οἴκοι τῶν ἐπιτηδείων, ἐκέλευον, συνδειπνεῖν
(As I knew that, arriving at that hour, he would find none of his circle at home, I invited him to dine with me)
Steadman says in his notes that καταλήψοιτο is an aorist optative, but surely that has to be future optative instead. But why use a future optative here? I remember Mastronarde mentioning somewhere that the future optative has a very restricted use, but I don't think he expands on this. Any thoughts?