pster wrote:Smyth 2510:
In general statements in the subjunctive with ἄν or the indicative, the relative, referring to a person, is often without an antecedent and has the force of εἴ τις. In such cases the main clause contains a substantive or a neuter adjective with ἐστί (which is commonly omitted), and the relative is the subject of the sentence or in apposition to it.
συμφορὰ_ δ', δς ἂν τύχῃ κακῆς γυναικός it is a calamity if a man gets a bad wife E. fr. 1056, καὶ τοῦτο μεῖζον τῆς ἀληθεία_ς κακόν, ὅστις τὰ μὴ προσόντα κέκτηται κακά and this is a misfortune exceeding the reality, if a man incurs the blame for evils that are not his doing E. Hel. 271, ὅστις . . . πρὸς θεῶν κακοῦται, βαρύ if a man suffers ill-usage from the gods, it is grievous E. Hel. 267.
In light of the examples cited--perhaps the bolded being easiest to examine--what does "relative" mean? Relative pronoun? Or relative clause?
Thanks in advance
pster - I assume (rightly or wrongly) that he means the relative pronoun as used in such instances (though they are of course in relative clauses as well). There are a few examples in our old friend Thucydides, including one in Pericles' funeral oration (2.44.1):
τὸ δ᾽ εὐτυχές, οἳ ἂν τῆς εὐπρεπεστάτης λάχωσιν, ὥσπερ οἵδε μὲν νῦν, τελευτῆς, ὑμεῖς δὲ λύπης, καὶ οἷς ἐνευδαιμονῆσαί τε ὁ βίος ὁμοίως καὶ <εὖ> ἐντελευτῆσαι ξυνεμετρήθη.
'... and there is good fortune if any are allotted, as in the case of these men, a most glorious death, or, as in your case, a most glorious grief, and also for those to whom life has been measured out sufficiently to live well in and likewise to die well in.'
In his commentary on this passage, Rusten (who cites your extract from Smyth) calls this a 'generalising relative clause', and refers to other examples in Thucydides at 2.62.4, 6.14, 6.16.3 and 7.68.1.