I was wondering what usage the ἦν's in John 1:1 would be labeled as, I was thinking Gnomic, but appearently, a Gnomic Imperfect doesn't really exist in the NT. If this is a Customary Imperfect, how is it seen as something that extends to before "ἐν ἀρχῃ." Could it be leximatic? Johns use of ειμι rather than γινομαι? Anyway, I've been going through my syntax books, and am having trouble trying to classify these imperfects.
Note: I believe there are other passages that support a trinitarian view, however, I am not looking to start a debate; I am only looking to understand the uses of the imperfects in this particular verse.