Holy Zeus! It's around 4am Saturday morning here in Montreal -- bad case of insomnia induced by Greek Grammar stress! So please bare with me if I'm a little incorent.
I have some questions about sentence patterns -- i.e., subordinate participial clauses, etc. -- and just plain grammar. For instance,
Acts 1:6: [face=SPIonic]Oi( me\n ou)=n sunelqo/ntej h)rw/twn au)to\n le/gontej, Ku/rie, ei) e)n tw=| xro/nw| tou/tw| a)pokaqista/neij th\n basilei/an tw=| )Israh/l;[/face]
Here we have two subordinate participial clauses: [face=SPIonic]sunelqo/ntej[/face] and [face=SPIonic]le/gontej.[/face] Would the principal clause then be the entire verse [face=SPIonic]Oi( me\n...tw=| )Israh/l[/face] or just the direct question: [face=SPIonic]Ku/rie, ei) ... tw=| )Israh/l[/face]?
Acts 1:8: ... [face=SPIonic]kai\ e(/wj e)sxa/tou th=j gh=j[/face] why is the adjective [face=SPIonic]e)sxa/tou[/face] in the neuter and not fem.?
Acts 1:9: [face=SPIonic]kai\ tau=ta ei)pw\n blepo/ntwn au)tw=n e)ph/rqh[/face]. I have here a genitive absolute subordinate participial clause: [face=SPIonic]blepo/ntwn au)tw=n[/face]. Since the finite verb in the main clause is in the aorist and the participle is in the present, can I translate this as "And when He had said these things, as they were watching Him, He was raised up" ? Why is [face=SPIonic]au)tw=n[/face] genitive plural and not genitive singular since we are saying HIM and not Them?
Thanks a million,
PeterD

