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This is from Ray Summer's Essentials of New Testament Greek. (Lesson 3, 17:1:12-Page 21)
[face=spionic]oi( a0/ggeloi ginw/skousi qa/naton kai\ dida/skousin a)nqrw/pouj lo/goij. [/face]
In this sentence would the first accusative affect the second verb?
The simple - The messengers know death and teach men (with) words.
Alternative - The messengers know death and teach men (death) (with) words.
A Sort of ellipsis - death being the topic of the teaching.
I know in english this treats "death" as a direct object and men as the indirect, and there would be another way to say that in greek, but I'm wondering if this is greek usage also.
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That would have to be determined by context. The sentence does not in itself imply that.
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