auctor wrote:Ah! Does it (or better still, can it) refer to whole of the previous phrase?
Are you giving Gladstone more of a pat on the back than WC was though?
Bert wrote:I am kind of glad that I failed to see the whole sentence. I probably would not even have attempted. I had to be creative just to do the first half, for instance, I didn't know how to write 'fun' so I wrote 'to have a good time'.
Are there any glaring deficiencies in my feeble attempt? (other than the declension of Homer.)
Bert wrote:I do not have an English to Greek dictionary other than what is in the back of Pharr's grammar. I would think one is almost indispensable for composition.
You are right!annis wrote: I'm not sure that calque works in Greek. (calque = a literal translation of an idiom; I imagine the phrase "a piece of cake" in Dutch means only cake, not that something was simple.)
annis wrote:And if it does work, I have suspicions about [face=spionic]kairo/j[/face] which has a strong implication of not just time in general, but one particular or appropriate time, such as in the phrase "in the fullness of time."
I remember now.annis wrote:In the sentence "I read to enjoy (myself)" the last bit "to enjoy myself" is a purpose clause. In my attempt I used a future participle to represent this (see Iliad A.12-13).
annis wrote:You used an infinitive, following the English model, but this isn't the way to do that in Greek.
Bert wrote:This is a grammar specifically for New Testament Greek, maybe in that era the use of the infinitive had changed?
Users browsing this forum: daivid, Google Adsense [Bot] and 47 guests