Bert wrote:I am kind of glad that I failed to see the whole sentence. I probably would not even have attempted. I had to be creative just to do the first half, for instance, I didn't know how to write 'fun' so I wrote 'to have a good time'.
I'm not sure that calque works in Greek. (calque = a literal translation of an idiom; I imagine the phrase "a piece of cake" in Dutch means only cake, not that something was simple.) And if it does work, I have suspicions about [face=spionic]kairo/j[/face]
which has a strong implication of not just time in general, but one particular or appropriate time, such as in the phrase "in the fullness of time."
Are there any glaring deficiencies in my feeble attempt? (other than the declension of Homer.)
In the sentence "I read to enjoy (myself)" the last bit "to enjoy myself" is a purpose clause. In my attempt I used a future participle to represent this (see Iliad A.12-13). You used an infinitive, following the English model, but this isn't the way to do that in Greek.
In addition to the future participle, purpose clauses are introduced with one of [face=spionic]i(/na, o(/pwj, w(j[/face]
, (in Homer, also [face=spionic]o)/fra[/face]
) and take the subjunctive after a primary main clause tense (present, future, present perfect) and after a secondary main verb tense (aorist, imperfect, past perfect) the optative is usual, but the subjuctive occurs (usually called "vivid").
[face=spionic]a)nagignw/skw i(/na te/rpwmai[/face]
I read in order to enjoy myself.
[face=spionic]a)negi/gnwskon i(/na terpoi/mhn[/face]
I was reading in order to enjoy myself.
(These are called "final clauses" in some grammars.)