NateD26 wrote:Both verses seemingly contain the same idea, that God's grace and gift was given in the form of Jesus. The Revised Standard edition correctly changed KJV initial "by" to reflect it.
I checked the RSV and in both instances "en" was translated "in". Both verses do contain the same idea which is why I'm puzzled as to why the preposition "en" was translated different in each passage.
I ask because if "en" were translated "by" in 2 tim 1:9 just as it was in 1 co 1:4, it would add more evidence to Christ's preincarnate existence, since it would suggest that Christ--the agent, was the giver of grace before time began.
Would that be grammatically accurate or am I off?