Contraction in κεῖμαι

[pster]

Evidently it is contracted from κέομαι. But isn't epsilon+οmicron supposed to yield omicron+upsilon in contraction? That's what happens with verb endings.

Thanks in advance.

[spiphany]

Where are you seeing that it's contracted? Isn't it simply athematic?

[pster]

I was looking at διακέομαι which LSJ give as δια^κέομαι. I couldn't find κέομαι. But somehow I did manage to get linked to κεῖμαι. κέομαι looks thematic and ripe for contraction. But I can't find it exactly in the very long and intimidating entry for κεῖμαι. You are probably right, but I must have missed something.

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Here is an unrelated question. Here is a dictionary entry from the Middle Liddell:

δημόομαι δῆμος
Pass. to talk popularly, Pind., Plat.

Presumably this verb is thematic. Do they just write it in the uncontracted form for the dictionary entry? I'm probably just being thrown off because it is deponent verb.

[Anthony Appleyard]

κεῖμαι is athematic, and its stem is kei-. In some derivative words it ablauts to koi-. It does not add -e/-o in conjugation.

[spiphany]

I was looking at διακέομαι which LSJ give as δια^κέομαι. I couldn't find κέομαι.

Try ἀκέομαι
(Don't ask me how many times I've searched in vain to look up a particular verb, only to discover that I analyzed the underlying prefixes and root incorrectly. Practice helps but doesn't eliminate the problem.)

Here is an unrelated question. [...] Presumably this verb is thematic. Do they just write it in the uncontracted form for the dictionary entry?

Yes. It's one of the LSJ's conventions to list verbs using the uncontracted form. (Which, btw would be another indication that κεῖμαι isn't a contract verb. They don't tell you it's athematic directly in the entry, just assume you can figure it out based on the forms provided.)

[pster]

I was looking at διακέομαι which LSJ give as δια^κέομαι. I couldn't find κέομαι.

Try ἀκέομαι

I'm still confused as to why ἀκέομαι and δια^κέομαι are athematic when κεῖμαι is not. Aren't they compounds of it? When they write δια^κέομαι but κέομαι doesn't exist anywhere, what the heck is going on? Sorry, Attic brings out the dummy in me.

[NateD26]

I'm still confused as to why ἀκέομαι and δια^κέομαι are athematic when κεῖμαι is not. Aren't they compounds of it? When they write δια^κέομαι but κέομαι doesn't exist anywhere, what the heck is going on? Sorry, Attic brings out the dummy in me.

There is no κέομαι as spiphany said. There is ἀκέομαι and when a preposition is added to create
a compound verb, if said prep. ends in a vowel, and the root begins in one, you drop the vowel of
the prep. (except in περί & πρό). So δια-ακέ-ο-μαι becomes διακοῦμαι.

Smyth notes in §791 that for the athematic verb κεῖμαι, Homer has three forms for the 3rd pl.
κείαται, κέαται, and κέονται, the latter of which is perhaps the source of confusion here.

[Damoetas]

διακέομαι and ἀκέομαι are not related to κεῖμαι. That's the simplest reason for why they inflect differently.

[pster]

I was looking at διακέομαι in LSJ and it gave δια^διακέομαι.

I looked for κέομαι in LSJ and found no entry.

I looked for κέομαι in the Pocket Oxford Classical Greek Dictionary and there was an entry but it only gave: >κεῖμαι

I went to textkit to ask what is going on.

Nate has probably fingered the cause.