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I've learnt that the reflexive pronoun refers to the subject, but Cic. Ac. I.33:
spoliavit enim virtutem suo decore
for he robbed virtue of her beauty
is this irregular, or is the rule erroneous; or I confused?
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I'm writing in Latin hoping for correction, and not because I'm confident in how I express myself. Latinè scribo ut ab omnibus corrigar, non quod confidenter me exprimam.
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