Greek Grammar

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PeterD
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Greek Grammar

Post by PeterD »

Greetings to all

Bare with me here. I know that a finite verb which has a plural neuter noun as its subject is singular. Does this apply only to finlite verbs or does it include verbal forms like participles as well?

Example: τὰ τέκνα ἐπορεύετο ἢ τὰ τέκνα ἐπορεύοντο;

Hearing alot of good stuff about the Schaeffer & Crosby text. If anyone is using it would appreciate your thoughts on it.

Thanks

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klewlis
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Post by klewlis »

I'm pretty sure it's just finite verbs.

But I'm often surprised by weird things like that. :)
First say to yourself what you would be; then do what you need to do. ~Epictetus

Robertus
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the participle is like an adjective

Post by Robertus »

Hi PeterD,

Well, as the participle is a nominal form of the verb, which means that it functions as an adjective of the noun, it must agree in number with the subject it refers to, therefore neuter plural nouns must have neuter plural participles.

I guess that's it! :wink:

Robertus

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