Pharr 1:149 Why a neuter adjective?

[Bert]

ὤ μοι, ἀναιδείην ἐπιειμένε, κερδαλεόφρον,
I think that ἀναιδείην is in the accusative case because it acts as object of the participle ἐπιειμένε. However, I don't understand why κερδαλεόφρον is neuter (I assume it is nominative)
There is nothing neuter for it to modify. If it is neuter because it is an adverb, what verb is it modifying. It wouldn't be -craftily clothed with shamelessness- would it?

[Paul]

Hi Bert,

I think κερδαλεόφρον is in the vocative case, like the perfect participle ἐπιειμένε.

Cordially,

Paul

[Bert]

Your right. Or at least, you and Cunliffe agree .
I was not aware of this form for vocative. I recognized the vocative participle because of the Epsilon.
Thank you.