Pharr 1:149 Why a neuter adjective?

[Bert]

[face=SPIonic]w)/ moi, a)naidei/hn e)pieime/ne, kerdaleo/fron,[/face]
I think that [face=SPIonic]a)naidei/hn [/face]is in the accusative case because it acts as object of the participle [face=SPIonic]e)pieime/ne[/face]. However, I don't understand why [face=SPIonic]kerdaleo/fron [/face]is neuter (I assume it is nominative)
There is nothing neuter for it to modify. If it is neuter because it is an adverb, what verb is it modifying. It wouldn't be -craftily clothed with shamelessness- would it?

[Paul]

Hi Bert,

I think [face=SPIonic]kerdaleo/fron[/face] is in the vocative case, like the perfect participle [face=SPIonic]e)pieime/ne[/face].

Cordially,

Paul

[Bert]

Your right. Or at least, you and Cunliffe agree .
I was not aware of this form for vocative. I recognized the vocative participle because of the Epsilon.
Thank you.