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Pharr 1:149 Why a neuter adjective?

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Pharr 1:149 Why a neuter adjective?

Postby Bert » Wed Dec 31, 2003 9:51 pm

[face=SPIonic]w)/ moi, a)naidei/hn e)pieime/ne, kerdaleo/fron,[/face]
I think that [face=SPIonic]a)naidei/hn [/face]is in the accusative case because it acts as object of the participle [face=SPIonic]e)pieime/ne[/face]. However, I don't understand why [face=SPIonic]kerdaleo/fron [/face]is neuter (I assume it is nominative)
There is nothing neuter for it to modify. If it is neuter because it is an adverb, what verb is it modifying. It wouldn't be -craftily clothed with shamelessness- would it?
Bert
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Iliad 1.149

Postby Paul » Wed Dec 31, 2003 10:25 pm

Hi Bert,

I think [face=SPIonic]kerdaleo/fron[/face] is in the vocative case, like the perfect participle [face=SPIonic]e)pieime/ne[/face].

Cordially,

Paul
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Postby Bert » Thu Jan 01, 2004 1:47 pm

Your right. Or at least, you and Cunliffe agree :D .
I was not aware of this form for vocative. I recognized the vocative participle because of the Epsilon.
Thank you.
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