εἷς δέ τις ἀρχος ἀνὴρ βουληφόρος ἔστω,
With the verb being right at the end of the phrase, how do you tell what is the subject and what the predicate? Or does it even matter?
"A man with discretion is to be the leader" is identical to "The leader is to be a man with discretion"
I probably would not have asked the question if ἀνὴρ was written before ἀρχὸς because it makes more sense if man has the indefiniteness of τις ie; Some man with discretion is to be the leader.
Does word order play a role here?
Pharr 1:144 Subject vs predicate
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My urge in these cases is to match the sense to the caesura. Here, after ἀρχός, matching your second translation. I'm interested to see what others say about this.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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Hi,
I've always translated ἀρχός as predicate, matching your second translation, e.g., 'let one counsel-bearing man be master'.
However, I never considered it from the insightful perspective William offered.
My thinking has been that an ἀνήρ must have βουληφόρος in order to be designated ἀρχός.
Cordially,
Paul
I've always translated ἀρχός as predicate, matching your second translation, e.g., 'let one counsel-bearing man be master'.
However, I never considered it from the insightful perspective William offered.
My thinking has been that an ἀνήρ must have βουληφόρος in order to be designated ἀρχός.
Cordially,
Paul
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It's hard for me to decide about this. On the one hand, τις, τι can be quite far from the word they go with, and have very strong urges in their phrase placement which adds to the confusion. For example, here's one with three words between it and what it goes with:Bert wrote:So εἷς and τις don't belong to the next word but to the one after that, ie; to ἀνὴρ
This does make sense in the translation but why would the word ἀρχὸς be inserted.
τέλος δ’ οὔ πώ τι πέφανται. B.122
But I share your concern about an intervening word which agrees with the indefinite, even if Pharr pushes for that interpretation indirectly in the greek-to-english exercise #4. We could take the ἀνὴρ βουληφόρος to be in aposition, "there there be some leader, a discreet man, ..." But I'm not entirely confident in that.
When I run into these confusions, I remember these words of Calvert Watkins, from How to Kill a Dragon chapter 16 "The hidden track of the cow: Obscure styles in indo-european:"
So Homer was probably sometimes difficult for Greeks, too.In the poetic traditions of most or all of the early Indo-European languages we find texts, often in large numbers, which for one reason or another present, or seem to present, some sort of obstacle between the hearer - the "reader" - and the message. And it often seems that that "obstacle" is in some sense what that society considers art. paro 'ks.akaamaa hi devaah. 'For the gods love the obscure', as we read in the Shatapathabraahmana 6.1.1.2 and many places elsewhere in Vedic literature.
I don't think so.Is there any significance in the fact that the verb is right at the end?
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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Ok, one last thought.
I grabbed the Scholia D H. van Thiel makes available, and it glosses thus:
A 144/Zs ἔστω· γενέσθω ZYQ
I grabbed the Scholia D H. van Thiel makes available, and it glosses thus:
A 144/Zs ἔστω· γενέσθω ZYQ
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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I probably should have omitted that. It's the manuscript sigla, indicating which manuscript families give this line (manuscripts of the Scholia, not Homer in general).Bert wrote:ZYQ meaning... (maybe; something like that??)annis wrote:A 144/Zs ἔστω· γενέσθω ZYQ
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;