Herodotus I, 139:
Ἐς τοῦτο διζήμενος εὑρήσεις τελευτῶντα τῶν Περσέων τὰ οὐνόματα, οὐ τὰ μέν, τὰ δὲ οὔ, ἀλλὰ πάντα ὁμοίως.
If you investigate this, you will find that the Persian names -not only some, but all of them- end exactly in the same way.
This is a tranlsation I made -with my limited capabilities for English- of the passage, but I have not translated the sentence οὐ τὰ μέν, τὰ δὲ οὔ -at least not entirely-. Similar expressions are found in Plutarch (Solon 16,3) but the meaning is quite obscure to me.
One possibility is that the meaning is "not some do it, and some do not, (but all do)", where the μέν would be both connector (in correlation with the δὲ) and an affirmative particle. I have also a vague memory of μέν used in the same way (with the affirmative meaning) in Plato. Suggestions?
οὐ τὰ μέν, τὰ δὲ οὔ (Hdt. I, 139)
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Re: οὐ τὰ μέν, τὰ δὲ οὔ (Hdt. I, 139)
I think it's simply the case of μέν & δὲ joined by the article to suggest two distinct subgroups ofPolyfloisbos wrote:Ἐς τοῦτο διζήμενος εὑρήσεις τελευτῶντα τῶν Περσέων τὰ οὐνόματα, οὐ τὰ μέν, τὰ δὲ οὔ, ἀλλὰ πάντα ὁμοίως.
the whole: Not that some do, and some don't, but that all do.
Nate.
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Re: οὐ τὰ μέν, τὰ δὲ οὔ (Hdt. I, 139)
NateD26 wrote:I think it's simply the case of μέν & δὲ joined by the article to suggest two distinct subgroups ofPolyfloisbos wrote:Ἐς τοῦτο διζήμενος εὑρήσεις τελευτῶντα τῶν Περσέων τὰ οὐνόματα, οὐ τὰ μέν, τὰ δὲ οὔ, ἀλλὰ πάντα ὁμοίως.
the whole: Not that some do, and some don't, but that all do.
Thanks for asking . It's also clear to me that the correlative clauses denotate two subgroups of the τὰ οὐνόματα, nevertheless I don't understand what the bold letters stand for. I mean, the translation is quite similar to mine, but I think that the μέν stands for do (this becomes clearer in romanic languages, where it's possible to say *some yes (in the sense of some do it).
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Re: οὐ τὰ μέν, τὰ δὲ οὔ (Hdt. I, 139)
It is similar to yours, only that I don't read μέν as standing for do, but as going with the articlePolyfloisbos wrote:Thanks for asking . It's also clear to me that the correlative clauses denotate two subgroups of the τὰ οὐνόματα, nevertheless I don't understand what the bold letters stand for. I mean, the translation is quite similar to mine, but I think that the μέν stands for do (this becomes clearer in romanic languages, where it's possible to say *some yes (in the sense of some do it).
to form the subject of the clause [τὰ μέν...τὰ δὲ = some...others...], and the verb is to be supplied.
At least that's how I was taught to read such constructions though I could be wrong.
Nate.
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Re: οὐ τὰ μέν, τὰ δὲ οὔ (Hdt. I, 139)
NateD26 wrote:It is similar to yours, only that I don't read μέν as standing for do, but as going with the articlePolyfloisbos wrote:Thanks for asking . It's also clear to me that the correlative clauses denotate two subgroups of the τὰ οὐνόματα, nevertheless I don't understand what the bold letters stand for. I mean, the translation is quite similar to mine, but I think that the μέν stands for do (this becomes clearer in romanic languages, where it's possible to say *some yes (in the sense of some do it).
to form the subject of the clause [τὰ μέν...τὰ δὲ = some...others...], and the verb is to be supplied.
At least that's how I was taught to read such constructions though I could be wrong.
Yeah , the verb elision is probably the best answer... anyway, if I find the Plato's passage I'll tell you more.