by annis » Wed Jul 09, 2003 8:58 pm
[quote author=bingley link=board=6;threadid=225;start=0#1135 date=1057763077]<br />I have heard that the gap between the Latin we love and the Latin people actually spoke was much larger than gap between "literary" and spoken English. What was the situation in Greece? How close was Thucydides' or Xenophon's prose to spoken Greek?<br />[/quote]<br /><br />Quite remote, apparently.<br /><br />Some time read a transcription of how people talk - even very well educated people - and compare it to their writing. There's a world of difference. Add to that the carefully honed verbal skills that comes from rhetorical training, and you have a writing style quite distant from how people actually speak.<br /><br />Something like Attic Koine (in the New Testament, say) is probably much closer to how the language was actually used in non-literary, non-speech-giving situations, though of course the Koine adopted features of languages in came in contact with.<br /><br />This ignores the issue with Xenophon, namely that his Attic was "debased" (I love old grammars) by being away from Athens and hangin' out with Barbarians - and Spartans - for so long.<br />