by phil » Tue Sep 23, 2003 11:19 pm
Yes, possessiveness is sometimes not explicitly stated where we would use it. I remember this particulary because some time ago I read Learn Latin (Peter V Jones), and one of the sentences was from the bible - which translated literally as 'God gave a son to the world'. The 'his' was not mentioned, but assumed.<br /><br />Cheers
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