I have a small question concerning a sentence in Exercise 15 of Adler's Practical Grammar (with answers from the author's KEY):
- Has your brother the fine asses of the Spaniards or those of the Italians? - Utrum frater tuus formosos Hispanorum asinos habet an illos Italorum?
- He has neither those of the Spaniards nor those of the Italians, but he has the fine asses of the French. - Non habet neque Hispanorum neque illos Italorum; habet autem formosos Francogallorum asinos.
- Have you the pretty sheep of the Turks or those of the Spaniards? - Utrum pulchras Turcarum habes oves an illas Hispanorum?
- I have neither those of the Turks nor those of the Spaniards, but those of my brother. - Nec Turcarum nec Hispanorum habeo, verum illos fratris mei.
In the latter example he uses neque...neque without non preceding it.
Am I right in supposing that non...neque...neque is used when the verb is at the beginning, and neque...neque when the verb is at the end?
Perhaps the answer is somewhere in the textbook itself, but I have not been using Adler's grammar for learning the basics, but am interested in his exercises. I have just finished transcribing (and hopefully reasonably proofread) the entire set of exercises including the answers from the author's "Key". So be warned, I am soon going to annoy you with quite a few questions (and requests for confirmations).