Lingua Hispanica

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Do you speak or write any Latin Derivate language such as Spanish, French or Italian?

Yes
17
68%
No
8
32%
 
Total votes: 25

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Ivansalgadogarcia
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Lingua Hispanica

Post by Ivansalgadogarcia »

If does someone knows spanish here I think there's a best way in this language to explain the Vocative Case. :lol:
nam ista corruptela servi si non modo impunita fuerit, sed etiam a tanta auctoritate approbata, nulli parietes nostram salutem, nullae leges, aulla iura custodient. (Cic. Deiot. 30)

nostos
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Re: Lingua Hispanica

Post by nostos »

Ivansalgadogarcia wrote:If does someone knows spanish here I think there's a best way in this language to explain the Vocative Case. :lol:
¿cómo, Ivan Salgado Gracía? :P

Edit: Welcome to Textkit :)

FiliusLunae
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Re: Lingua Hispanica

Post by FiliusLunae »

Ivansalgadogarcia wrote:If does someone knows spanish here I think there's a best way in this language to explain the Vocative Case. :lol:
Yeah... I didn't understand either. :P

And based on the kind of posts I usually make here, I don't think I need to answer your poll question. Hehe...

~FILIUS

P.S. But anyway, I voted yes. 8)

Ciraric
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Post by Ciraric »

I voted no even though the english language is largely derivitive of Latin. Despite being a germanic language.

bellum paxque
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Post by bellum paxque »

English certainly has borrowed a lot of its vocabulary from Latin, but it isn't accurate to say that it's a linguistic derivative of Latin. The syntax of the two languages is nothing alike (except insofar as they are both indo-european languages).

-David

translatedpoorly
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Post by translatedpoorly »

bellum paxque wrote:The syntax of the two languages is nothing alike (except insofar as they are both indo-european languages).
Wasn't Old English highly inflected in a fashion similar to Latin though?

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Deudeditus
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Post by Deudeditus »

Old English had nominative/vocative; accusative; dative; and genitive. sometimes the instrumental case is mentioned, but i think it only differs from the dative in a few adjectives... and often times many of the cases were identical. all plural verbs were identical, i think. with three persons (i don't know if OE had a dual number for their verbs... they had a dual pronoun, though.)

I think I read somewhere that anglo-saxon also borrowed some grammatical constructions from latin... cant.. remember... which... ones... must... read... more... aaahhh!!

-Jon

CharlesH
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Post by CharlesH »

edited for brevity
Last edited by CharlesH on Fri Dec 08, 2006 12:23 am, edited 1 time in total.

zhongv1979
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Post by zhongv1979 »

I actually think in some cases a language that is not a kin but borrowed many words from the language you want to study is a better reference than languages actually derived from the language you want. In this sense, actually English is a better reference than those derived Romance Languages. Another case is Chinese. If your native tone is Japanese, you will not feel too hard to understand a lot of Chinese words, although Japanese is not a kin to Chinese. Not that if you are a Tibetan, although Chinese and Tibetan are sibling languages...

The reason here is clear: borrowed words tend to retain their original form, while derived words normally change beyond recognition for anyone without a fundamental linguistic knowledge...

bellum paxque wrote:English certainly has borrowed a lot of its vocabulary from Latin, but it isn't accurate to say that it's a linguistic derivative of Latin. The syntax of the two languages is nothing alike (except insofar as they are both indo-european languages).

-David

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Ivansalgadogarcia
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Vocative Case

Post by Ivansalgadogarcia »

Well, i'll open a new Theme in this forum for explaining the vocative case...

;) :D
nam ista corruptela servi si non modo impunita fuerit, sed etiam a tanta auctoritate approbata, nulli parietes nostram salutem, nullae leges, aulla iura custodient. (Cic. Deiot. 30)

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